Timeline for Why did the ancient Greek count 1 in case of perfect numbers but not otherwise
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 13, 2016 at 4:23 | comment | added | Mark Dominus | The Treviso arithmetic of 1453 also excludes 1as a number. | |
| Oct 30, 2016 at 21:20 | comment | added | Conifold | I suspect that Euclid was influenced (through Plato) by the refined Parmenidian concerns that multiplicity and change are illusions and only One is (he strives to keep motion out of geometric arguments for similar reasons). But it had little effect on common usage by Greeks, or even mathematical usage, Euclid himself does not maintain the distinction consistently in the Elements. | |
| Oct 29, 2016 at 20:34 | vote | accept | Franz Kurz | ||
| Oct 29, 2016 at 20:33 | vote | accept | Franz Kurz | ||
| Oct 29, 2016 at 20:34 | |||||
| Oct 29, 2016 at 18:25 | answer | added | fdb | timeline score: 4 | |
| Oct 29, 2016 at 11:07 | comment | added | fdb | @Conifold. I think you are confusing "numerals" and "numbers". | |
| Oct 29, 2016 at 7:44 | history | edited | Franz Kurz | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| Oct 29, 2016 at 7:32 | comment | added | Franz Kurz | @Conifold: Euclid excludes 1 as a number. | |
| Oct 29, 2016 at 7:30 | vote | accept | Franz Kurz | ||
| Oct 29, 2016 at 20:33 | |||||
| Oct 28, 2016 at 22:40 | answer | added | user2255 | timeline score: 9 | |
| Oct 28, 2016 at 21:41 | comment | added | Conifold | Why do you think that 1 was not considered a number by Greeks, is there a source? Greeks had a numeral for it since the time immemorial, and Pythagoreans distinguished it as "the number of reason" in their numerology. | |
| Oct 28, 2016 at 20:51 | history | asked | Franz Kurz | CC BY-SA 3.0 |