my question is very simple. Physicists use this notation in order to write a (for example) plane wave:
$$ \xi(z) = \xi^+ \mathrm{e}^{+\mathrm{i}kz} + \xi^- \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i}kz}, $$ where $\xi^+$ is the progressive wave and $\xi^-$ is the regressive wave.
Engineers adopt a different notation:
$$ \xi(z) = \xi^+ \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i}kz} + \xi^- e^{+\mathrm{i}kz}. $$
Basically you can move from one notation to the other by choosing $\mathrm{i} \to -\mathrm{i}$, or vice versa.
Obviously both are correct, but I find a little more sense in the engineers' notation, because $\xi(z)$ can be interpreted as a phasor, and in order to come back in the time domain you have to multiply for $\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\omega t}$, and this is the same thing that you do when you do the inverse Fourier transform, in order to get a function in the time domain:
$$ f(t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} F(\omega) \ \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} \omega t} \mathrm{d}\omega, $$ while the physicists have to multiply for $\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i}\omega t}$, in order to have $\xi^+$ as the coefficient of the progressive wave and $\xi^-$ as the coefficient of the regressive wave.
Obviously this is not fundamental, because the only thing important is to have a $f(kz-\omega t)$ as the progressive wave and $f(kz+\omega t)$ as the regressive wave, but I find more natural the engineers' notation. Is there a reason why physicists use another notation?
A friend of mine told me that in origin engineer chose another imaginary root, but I'm not convinced. He basically told me that since the equation: $$ x^2 = -1 \Longrightarrow \left| x \right| = \sqrt{-1} $$ has two roots, namely: $x_1 = \sqrt{-1}$ and $x_2 = -\sqrt{-1}$, physicists and mathematicians chose $\mathrm{i} = \sqrt{-1}$, while engineers chose $j = -\sqrt{-1}$.
The reason why I'm not convinced is that they write other quantities in the same way, for example you can find $Z_L = \mathrm{i}\omega L$ and $Z_L = j\omega L$ in physics and engineering books.
Do you have any idea why this discrepancy does exists? Can you cite some source about the notation discrepancy? I didn't find anything.