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Or was he more of an 'independent' style like his teacher Gauss?

If you can give an objectively correct answer to this, what is the basis for it?

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  • $\begingroup$ the Riemann-Roch theorem was not from those two working together. Riemann proved something, then years later Roch improved it. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 2 at 17:18
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    $\begingroup$ Riemann had no joint publications, except the book which H. Weber wrote after his death, and which was based on Riemann's lectures. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3 at 12:39

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