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Recently somebody said in answer (at PSE) that magnetic force violates 3rd law of motion and that Poincaré solved that anomaly introducing the magnetic field that compensates missing force.

Can you tell if this is true and tell me where I can find more details on the issue, and most of all why 3rd law is violated without the field? I had never heard about that. Thanks

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you link to the PSE question that mentions this? What magnetic force law was being discussed? $\endgroup$ – Geremia Jun 22 '16 at 14:30
  • $\begingroup$ @Geremia, Unfortunately the answer was deleted. It was Lorentz law. $\endgroup$ – user646 Jun 23 '16 at 4:23

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