The title is drawn from a sentence in a Jim Holt article, "The Dangerous Idea of the Infinitesimal," now a chapter in his book collection.1 I found this a striking claim, and perhaps true, as the ancient Greeks did not have the algebraic means to formulate "scientific laws" as we know them today.
Q. To what extent is it in some sense true that the ancient Greeks did not discover a single scientific law? Are there counterexamples, cases where they did discover "laws," even if not phrased in equations?
The full sentence is: "The Greeks might have amassed much particular knowledge of nature, but their love of rigor held them back from discovering a single scientific law." Of course it is unfair to Holt to extract this from the surrounding context, but I do think the Q above can be discussed outside of Holt's context.
1 Jim Holt. When Einstein Walked with Gödel: Excursions to the Edge of Thought. Farrar, Straus and Giroux, 2018. Chp.13, pp.146-156. Quote p.153. (NYTimes Review.)