The reason I ask is because he talks about the fine structure constant in one of his undergraduate lectures.
The reference to its mystery is analogous to all the special constants of nature such as the cosmological constant and so on and so forth that are attempted to be explained by either the anthropic principle or invoking multiverses
It seems to work in today's physics and I am curious why Feynman didn't use this argument. Not that I am saying it is an explanation but I am sure he would have had something to say about it.
I am not really sure what tags I should even use for this question.