# Tag Info

As Professor K. Conrad mentions, the short answer to this question is NO. Around 1792 Gauß already knew that the "frequency [of the primes] is on the average inversely proportional to the logarithm, so that the number of primes below a given bound $n$ is approximately equal to $\int \frac{1}{\log n} \, dn,$ where the given logarithm is understood to be ...