New answers tagged set-theory
5
If you look at Cantor's writing you will find the same idea. He first defined multiplication the way you suggest. But later he switched to the definition we use today. Reference:
Joseph W. Dauben. Georg Cantor, his mathematics and philosophy of the infinite. Harvard University Press, 1979
Why? My guess: When defining $\alpha + \beta$ and $\alpha^\beta$ ...
Top 50 recent answers are included
