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Feb 20, 2021 at 15:20 history edited Danu
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Feb 27, 2020 at 18:11 comment added vonbrand @JohnForkosh because there are $\lvert B \rvert^\lvert A \rvert$ such functions...
Jan 29, 2020 at 15:53 history edited modnar CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 28, 2020 at 7:41 vote accept modnar
Jan 26, 2020 at 7:46 history edited modnar CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 25, 2020 at 7:47 answer added Conifold timeline score: 7
Jan 25, 2020 at 5:50 comment added Conifold On the other hand, Cantor's Ueber eine elementare Frage der Mannigfaltigkeitslehre (1891), where he proves that the "power" (Mächtigkeit, now cardinality) of the set of subsets is greater than that of the underlying set by the "diagonal argument", does not call the set of subsets "Potenzmenge", or anything else in particular.
Jan 25, 2020 at 5:27 comment added John Forkosh Similar to @Nathaniel, I have no factual knowledge. But the function space $f:A\to B$ is often written $B^A$. And then the set of all subsets of $X$ is just (isomorphic to) $2^X$, perhaps suggesting the name "powerset".
Jan 25, 2020 at 4:35 history edited modnar CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 24, 2020 at 18:38 comment added kimchi lover For what it's worth, Zermelo's "Untersuchungen über die Grundlagen der Mengenlehre. I" (Mathematische Annalen, v65, 1908) uses the term "Potenzmenge" (meaning "power set") as if it needed no explanation. The idea but not the term is present in Russell's 1903 Principles of Mathematics ( people.umass.edu/klement/pom/pom.html ).
Jan 24, 2020 at 17:50 comment added N. Virgo I have no historical knowledge, but I always assumed it was because for a set with $N$ elements, the power set has $2^N$ elements.
Jan 24, 2020 at 13:31 history edited modnar CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 24, 2020 at 13:08 history asked modnar CC BY-SA 4.0